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Client Alert

The Prudential Bank Regulators Adopt Federal Data Interruption Notice Requirements for FDIC-Insured Institutions and Service Providers

December 10, 2021

by Erin Bryan and Joseph Lynyak

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Introduction

On November 23, 2021, the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (the “OCC”), the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (the “FDIC”) and the Federal Reserve Board (the “Prudential Regulators”) exercised their collective safety and soundness authority to establish a national standard for FDIC-insured institutions (collectively, “Banks”) and their bank service providers (“Service Providers”) to notify the applicable Prudential Regulator of a data interruption, system failure or breach that is likely to cause loss to a Bank.

The final rule (the “Rule”) is effective as of April 1, 2022, with compliance mandatory on May 1, 2022.1 The Rule imposes different evaluative factors on Banks and Service Providers when determining whether a notice obligation is created, including qualitative judgments following an identified “data-security incident” to determine whether a required notice must be provided.

What follows is a summary of the Rule, as well as several initial observations regarding possible compliance concerns for both Banks and Service Providers.

Overview

Notwithstanding the plethora of state statutes addressing data breaches and required notifications, in the banking sector there has not existed a clear federal requirement for a Bank to notify its Prudential Regulator that a data interruption or breach of its electronic systems has occurred that might jeopardize the Bank and/or the financial system. From the perspective of the Prudential Regulators, some of the evaluative standards promulgated under various state data breach laws may have had the effect of permitting a Bank to delay deeming a data breach incident to have occurred, as well as permitting a Bank to delay notifying the applicable Prudential Regulator in sufficient time to allow the Prudential Regulator to take remedial action to prevent actual loss or damage to an individual Bank or to the U.S. banking system as a whole.

In recognition of the growing use of Service Providers being employed by Banks (e.g., cloud processing for lending and deposit systems and general data account storage), the Prudential Regulators elected to include Service Providers by imposing on them an “early warning” notice to a Bank customer of a “computer-security incident” that requires the immediate attention of a Bank.

The Rule establishes a three-step process to determine whether a notice is required. First, has a computer-security incident, discussed below, occurred that results in actual harm either to a Bank’s electronic system(s) or the data stored in it? Second, if the answer is in the affirmative, has the identified computer-security incident materially disrupted or degraded, or is reasonably likely to materially disrupt or degrade, a Bank’s operations? Third, if the answer is in the affirmative, a Bank must notify its Prudential Regulator within 36 hours from the point in time that determination is made, and a Service Provider must notify its Bank customers “as soon as possible” after that determination is made.

Bank

The Rule requires a Bank to notify its Prudential Regulator upon the occurrence of a “notification incident” arising from a “computer-security incident” at the Bank, which is defined as “an occurrence that results in actual harm to the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of an information system or the information that the [electronic] system processes, stores, or transmits.”

Upon the identification of a computer-security incident, a Bank must immediately determine whether the incident (including a security breach) is sufficiently significant as to create a “notification incident” that requires that a notification be made by the Bank to the Bank’s Prudential Regulator.

The Rule defines a “notification incident” as follows:

Notification incident is a computer-security incident that has materially disrupted or degraded, or is reasonably likely to materially disrupt or degrade, a banking organization’s—

(i) Ability to carry out its banking operations, activities, or processes, or deliver banking products and services to a material portion of its customer base, in the ordinary course of business;

(ii) Business line(s), including associated operations, services, functions, and support, that upon failure would result in a material loss of revenue, profit, or franchise value; or

(iii) Operations, including associated services, functions and support, as applicable, the failure or discontinuance of which would pose a threat to the financial stability of the United States.

Should a Bank determine that a notification incident has occurred, the Bank must notify its Prudential Regulatory within 36 hours of that determination. The method for notifying the applicable Prudential Regulator is intended to be direct and straightforward, and includes the use of a telephonic communication, email or other similar method.2

While not included in the Rule itself, the supplemental information in the Federal Register accompanying the Rule provides examples of electronic system disruptions or failures that will generally be deemed to per se constitute notification incidents:

  • Large-scale distributed denial of service attacks that disrupt customer account access for an extended period of time (e.g., more than 4 hours);
  • A Service Provider that is used by a Bank for its core banking platform to operate business applications experiences widespread system outages and recovery time is undeterminable;
  • A failed system upgrade or change that results in widespread user outages for a Bank’s customers and employees;
  • An unrecoverable system failure that results in activation of a Bank’s business continuity or disaster recovery plan;
  • A computer hacking incident that disables banking operations for an extended period of time;
  • Malware on a Bank’s network that: (i) poses an imminent threat to the Bank’s core business lines or critical operations; or (ii) requires the Bank to disengage any compromised products or information systems that support the Bank’s core business lines or critical operations from Internet-based network connections; and
  • A ransom malware attack that encrypts a core banking system or backup data.

Service Providers

The Rule defines a “Service Provider” as any person or entity who provides a service to a Bank which is a covered service pursuant to the Bank Service Company Act (the “BSCA”).3 This definitional approach results in a broad scope of coverage for Service Providers regardless whether the Service Provider is itself a bank service company. The definition is intended to include Bank affiliates as well, regardless of whether such affiliates would constitute bank service companies under the BSCA.

The BSCA defines the following services that may be provided by a bank service company to a Bank:

  • check and deposit sorting and posting;
  • computation and posting of interest and other credits and charges;
  • preparation and mailing of checks, statements, notices, and similar items; and
  • any other clerical, bookkeeping, accounting, statistical, or similar functions performed for a Bank.4

In addition to these core banking functions that may be provided by a Service Provider, a bank service company may also provide any services that may be performed by a bank holding company (as interpreted by the Federal Reserve) pursuant to Section 4(c)(8) of the Bank Holding Company Act.5

The effect of this definitional approach is to include within the coverage of the Rule a Service Provider who provides a service to a Bank that can be directly performed by the Bank itself. Considering that the Rule contemplates computer malfunctions associated with the operation of a Bank, it is difficult to identify any electronic system being provided by a third party related to a Bank’s core operations that would not be deemed to be a covered service under the Rule.

It should be noted that when a computer-security incident is experienced by a Service Provider, the Rule subjects a Service Provider to a lower (i.e., reduced) factual determination of harm than would apply to a Bank customer. First, the Service Provider must conclude that a computer-security incident has occurred, based upon the same evaluative criteria as the criteria to be employed by a Bank directly. Second, however, a Service Provider must determine whether the computer-security incident it has experienced has “materially disrupted or degraded, or is reasonably likely to materially disrupt or degrade,” the covered services provided to a Bank customer for four or more hours. Upon making this second determination, a Service Provider is required to notify at least one Bank-designated point of contact at each affected Bank customer utilizing an email address, phone number, or any other contact methodology previously provided by the Bank to the Service Provider.6

Observations Regarding Compliance

We offer the following observations regarding the Rule:

Comparing the Rule’s Requirements with State Data Breach Laws. While the Rule’s notification requirements encompass computer system interruptions that are broader than many state data breach laws, particular concerns may arise when a computer-security incident may also qualify as a data breach as defined by state law. Because many states impose liability on third parties for failing to take required action of a data breach incident, a Bank experiencing a computer-security incident under the Rule must exercise care to distinguish between differing standards that might apply.

Specifically, the standard for notifying a Prudential Regulator of a computer-security incident (i.e., following a determination that a notification incident has occurred as defined by the Rule) may be lower than the factual determination required to be made that a data breach has occurred. In the case of the Rule, the Rule contemplates the quick and prompt evaluation of harm to a Bank, but without the necessity of determining why that data loss (as compared to systems functionality) has occurred. Conversely, many state laws permit an entity experiencing a possible data breach the time to conduct an investigation to determine that a data loss outside of the control of a Bank (or a Service Provider) has occurred, and generally a factual investigation to determine that a data loss has actually occurred is permitted prior to the obligation of notifying third parties commences.7

This possible disparity in evaluative standards between the Rule and state data breach laws could expose both a Bank and a Service Provider to an allegation that its state law data breach compliance obligations commenced based upon the Rule and not the applicable state data breach law. Accordingly, Banks and Service Providers complying with the Rule should consider including in any notice a statement that the notice is being provided under the standards as set forth in the Rule, and compliance with any obligations under state law data breach laws will be separately considered.8

The Rule’s Scope of Coverage for Service Providers. As noted above, the Rule employs a broad coverage approach to include in the scope of coverage under the Rule virtually any electronic system provided by a Service Provider to a Bank that potentially might cause loss to a Bank.

We note that mapping covered computer systems operated directly by a Bank for compliance purposes should not present a significant difficulty by reference to existing vendor management guidance issued by the Prudential Regulators and the FFIEC.9 However, in regard to Service Providers, the application of the test described above may present practical difficulties both in respect of the short time-frame for determining that a notice must be provided to a Bank customer (i.e., as soon as possible) as well as the potential number of notices that might be required in the instance of a large Service Provider that provides covered services to hundreds of Banks.10

Contractual versus the Rule’s Notice Obligations for Service Providers. Considering the significant expansion of covered services now being provided by Service Providers, large Service Providers may find compliance to be difficult, and may be reluctant (or unable) to implement compliance protocols within the Rule’s effective date for compliance (i.e., May 1, 2022).

In that regard, Service Providers may have strong legal positions to object to strict compliance with the notice requirement under the Rule.

First, the Rule’s attempt to claim jurisdiction over Service Providers that are not affiliated with a Bank may be of questionable legal effect. While compliance may be voluntary on the part of Service Providers, strict compliance may not be legally enforceable by the Prudential Regulators.

Second, Service Providers objecting to coverage under the Rule may elect to rely upon existing service contracts with Banks that frequently include data interruption and breach notification provisions—meaning that until those provisions are modified by a Bank and its Service Provider, existing contractual provisions should control and not the requirements of the Rule.11 At a minimum, Banks may want to harmonize as much as possible the nomenclature in this area in a manner that provides reasonable guidance to both its own employees and to Service Providers.

Finally, the scope of coverage of the Rule is so broad that drafting effective policies and procedures to enable a Service Provider to achieve reasonable compliance may require significant efforts. In the instance of Service Providers that provide Bank customers core bank system services, creating a notification system for Bank customers may be practically difficult to achieve without considerable modification to policies and procedures applicable to bank-related data breaches.


1 Available at: https://www.federalregister.gov/documents/2021/11/23/2021-25510/computer-security-incident-notification-requirements-for-banking-organizations-and-their-bank (last accessed Dec. 10, 2021).
2 The Prudential Regulators may issue supplemental guidance regarding an acceptable notification methodology. However, the clear intent of the notification requirements of the Rule is to effect a notice in a practical and efficient manner. (Regardless of the notification method employed, a specific notice to a Bank’s examiner in charge may be prudent.)
3 12 U.S.C § 1861 et seq.
4 12 U.S.C. § 1863.
5 12 U.S.C § 1843(c)(8). The activities falling into this category are usual and typical support services traditionally provided by a bank holding company for a bank subsidiary which had been determined prior to November 12, 1999 by the Federal Reserve to be so closely related to banking as to be a proper incident thereto. Most computer and other electronic support services under this alternative authority would be a covered service under the Rule.
6 If a Bank has not previously provided a Service Provider a designated point of contact, the required notification must be made to the chief executive officer and chief information officer of the Bank, or two individuals of comparable responsibilities (through any reasonable means).
7 It should be noted that the discussion of state data breach laws is intended to highlight the differing standards that may exist between complying with state data breach requirements and the Rule’s lower standards for notifying the Prudential Regulators. Care must be exercised by a Bank to determine its specific obligations under each state data breach statute and regulations that may apply when a computer-security incident and a possible data breach has occurred.
8 A Bank providing a notification to a Prudential Regulator might also consider requesting that the notice be deemed confidential pursuant to safety and soundness examination considerations. The New York State Department of Financial Services (the “DFS”) already allows for this, and has imposed penalties on DFS regulated companies, even if no harm resulted.
9 See, Third-Party Relationships: Risk Management Guidance | OCC; Third-Party Relationships: Frequently Asked Questions to Supplement OCC Bulletin 2013-29 | OCC; Proposed Interagency Guidance on Third-Party Relationships: Risk Management, 2021-15308.pdf (govinfo.gov) (July 2021).
10 We note that the Prudential Regulators may not appreciate the potential complexity for service providers to adopt effective policies and procedures. Whether latitude for achieving a reasonable degree of compliance for larger Service Providers will be afforded by the Prudential Regulators may require additional discussions with the Prudential Regulators in the next six months.
11 While the Prudential Regulators have not directly addressed this contractual issue, informal discussions have indicated that Banks will be expected to modify contracts with Service Providers as those contracts are negotiated or renewed.

 

Firm Highlights

Insights

The Supreme Court Update - October 8, 2026

On September 29, 2026, the Supreme Court granted certiorari in one case: Department of Homeland Security v. D.V.D., No. 26-426: This case concerns the Trump Administration’s “third-country removal” procedures, where immigrants are deported to countries not listed in the removal orders. In granting certiorari, the Court granted the Government’s application to stay a lower court decision halting the practice, which will allow third-country removals to continue pending resolution of the case. The issues presented are: (1) Whether the district court had jurisdiction over respondents’ claims; (2) whether the district court had authority to enter class-wide declaratory relief and APA vacatur under 8 U.S.C. § 1252(f)(1); (3) whether the Government’s guidance on third-country removals is unlawful under 8 U.S.C. § 1231(b), the due process clause, or FARRA/CAT and its implementing regulations; and (4) such other questions that the Government determines are appropriate for the proper disposition of the case. On October 1, 2026, the Court granted certiorari in three additional cases: Rhoney v. Barbosa da Cunha, No. 26-104: Immigration officials detained Ricardo Aparecido Barbosa da Cunha—a Brazilian citizen who had lived in the United States for approximately twenty years after entering without inspection—and denied him a bond hearing under 8 U.S.C. § 1225(b)(2)(A). The Second Circuit held that his detention was instead governed by § 1226(a), which permits release on bond, because § 1225(b)(2)(A)’s mandatory-detention requirement applies only to noncitizens apprehended while entering the country or shortly thereafter. The question presented is: Whether 8 U.S.C. § 1225(b)(2)(A) mandates the detention pending removal proceedings of aliens who, like Barbosa da Cunha, are present in the United States without having been admitted. Missionaries of St. John the Baptist, Inc. v. Frederic, No. 25-113: A Catholic religious organization sought to build a shrine to the Virgin Mary on land the organization owned adjacent to its church in Park Hills, Kentucky. Local zoning restrictions prohibited the proposed construction. The question presented is: Whether a land-use regulation that prohibits a religious institution from building a religious structure on its own property constitutes a “substantial burden” on religious exercise under the Substantial Burden Provision of the Religious Land Use and Institutionalized Persons Act, 42 U.S.C. § 2000cc(a). Marschner v. Marschner, No. 25-1349: Under the Uniformed Services Former Spouses’ Protection Act (“USFSPA”), a veteran’s longevity-based retirement pay can be divided in a divorce, but retirement pay based on disability and retirement pay that was waived to receive disability pay are indivisible. The question presented is: Does the USFSPA require state courts to refuse enforcement of indemnification provisions in a divorce settlement agreement?

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SEC Proposes Expansion of Investment Adviser Performance-Based Compensation Rule

On September 30, 2026, the Securities and Exchange Commission (the “SEC”) proposed amendments to Rule 205-3 under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940, as amended (the “Advisers Act”), which provides an exemption from the general prohibition under Section 205(a)(1) of the Advisers Act on registered investment advisers receiving performance-based compensation (the “Proposal”) so long as performance-based compensation is limited to “qualified clients”.1 Most notably for private fund sponsors, the Proposal would expand the definition of “qualified client” to include any investors that satisfy the “accredited investor” definition under Regulation D. The Proposal may also have implications for private fund managers that rely on exemptions from investment adviser registration under state law because certain state-level investment adviser registration exemptions incorporate or otherwise reference the federal qualified client definition. Expansion of the Qualified Client Definition Under the current Rule 205-3, an investor generally may qualify as a qualified client if, among other alternatives, the investor has at least $1.4 million under management with the adviser or has a net worth exceeding $2.7 million. These thresholds are higher than the financial thresholds applicable to many accredited investors under Regulation D. As a result, an investor may currently qualify as an accredited investor for purposes of investing in a private offering without qualifying as a qualified client for purposes of paying performance-based compensation. The Proposal would expand the qualified client definition to include any natural person or legal entity investor that satisfies the accredited investor definition under Regulation D. The Proposal would also remove the assets under management and net worth thresholds under the current Rule 205-3 qualified client test. For private funds relying on Section 3(c)(1) of the Investment Company Act of 1940, this change could reduce the need to apply a separate qualified client standard to investors that already qualify as accredited investors. Dorsey Observations and Next Steps If adopted as proposed, the expanded qualified client definition could be particularly significant for private fund managers. Most private fund offerings are already limited to accredited investors under Regulation D. However, the Proposal could expand the pool of prospective investors available to emerging private fund managers while reducing the regulatory burden associated with complying with Rule 205-3. The Proposal could also benefit advisers operating below the SEC registration threshold that rely on a state private fund adviser exemption. A number of states have adopted exemptions modeled on the North American Securities Administrators Association (“NASAA”) private fund adviser exemption, which may condition relief for advisers to certain funds relying on Section 3(c)(1) on each beneficial owner satisfying the federal qualified client definition. However, state requirements vary, and any effect of the Proposal would depend on the text of the applicable state exemption and how it incorporates Rule 205-3. Many emerging private fund managers may have a larger network of accredited investor relationships than qualified client relationships during the early stages of their investment advisory business. Currently, under Rule 205-3, private fund managers may receive performance-based compensation from investors who do not satisfy the qualified client definition if those investors were admitted to their private funds prior to registration with the SEC. Following registration with the SEC, however, managers may continue to permit investors that are not qualified clients to invest in future private funds but may not receive performance-based compensation from those investors with respect to such investments. In addition, because the net worth and assets under management thresholds for qualified client status are adjusted for inflation every five years, the pool of qualified client investors may diminish over time as previously eligible investors no longer satisfy the applicable thresholds. The Proposal could provide the dual benefit of greater flexibility for private fund managers to establish and maintain relationships with accredited investors as their businesses scale and they become registered with the SEC, and greater flexibility for certain accredited investors to participate in investment strategies that historically have been restricted to much larger institutional investors. Unless and until the Proposal is adopted, investment advisers should continue to comply with the existing qualified client requirements. If the Proposal is adopted, private fund sponsors should consider whether corresponding changes are appropriate for their subscription documents, investor questionnaires, and other offering materials. Advisers that are state-registered or rely on a state-level exemption should also consult the laws and regulations of each relevant jurisdiction before changing investor eligibility standards or performance-based compensation practices, because adoption of the federal amendments may not automatically modify state requirements. Comments on the Proposal will be due 60 days after publication in the Federal Register. 1 Investment Adviser Performance-Based Compensation Modernization, Investment Advisers Act Release No. IA-7022 (Sept. 30, 2026), available at https://www.sec.gov/rules-regulations/2026/09/s7-2026-28#33-11443proposed.

Insights

EPA Limits Title V Re-Litigation of NSR Permits

Overview On September 25, 2026, the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (“EPA”) published a final rule that significantly limits the ability of third parties to use the Clean Air Act (“CAA”) Title V permitting process to revisit New Source Review (“NSR”) permitting decisions years after those decisions were made. The rule establishes that NSR permitting determinations generally must be challenged during the original permitting proceeding, thereby providing regulated sources with greater permitting certainty and finality for major capital projects. Published in the Federal Register titled Clarifying the Scope of “Applicable Requirements” Under State Operating Permit Programs and the Federal Operating Permit Program (Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2023-0401), the rule amends 40 C.F.R. Parts 70 and 71 to codify EPA’s interpretation regarding when requirements established under other CAA programs may be reviewed, modified, or implemented through the Title V operating permit program. 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EPA, 964 F.3d 882 (10th Cir. 2020), finding that the then-existing regulatory definition of “applicable requirement” did not support EPA’s position. By amending the regulatory language on which the Tenth Circuit relied and codifying the interpretation approved by the Fifth Circuit, EPA has established a nationwide framework governing the interaction between NSR and Title V. NSR and Title V: EPA Establishes a Uniform Nationwide Framework At the core of the rule is EPA’s effort to define the respective roles of NSR and Title V. The rule codifies the approach EPA has applied since 2017: once a source obtains an NSR permit under an EPA-approved permitting program, and that permit was issued following public notice with an opportunity for comment and judicial review, the permit establishes the NSR-related “applicable requirements” of the State Implementation Plan (“SIP”) or Federal Implementation Plan (“FIP”) for Title V purposes. Under this framework, Title V is not a vehicle for re-examining underlying NSR permitting decisions. EPA does not intend to use the Title V process to revisit applicability determinations, emissions calculations, control technology determinations, permit conditions, or other issues resolved through the NSR permitting process. This principle applies regardless of the stage of the Title V proceeding; whether the NSR permit was issued pursuant to a SIP or FIP; the type of NSR issue involved; or whether the NSR permit is incorporated into Title V sequentially or concurrently. Limited Exceptions EPA recognizes several circumstances in which NSR issues may still be reviewed through the Title V program: No NSR permit was issued at all; The permit was issued without public notice and an opportunity for comment and judicial review; or The issue involves substantive overlap between Title V and NSR requirements, such as the adequacy of monitoring provisions. As a result, the rule does not insulate unpermitted projects or foreclose review of matters that independently arise under Title V. Key Regulatory Amendments The rule revises the definition of “applicable requirement” in 40 C.F.R. §§ 70.2 and 71.2. Paragraph (1): Where an NSR permit is issued with public notice and an opportunity for comment and judicial review, the permit establishes and defines the applicable SIP or FIP requirements for Title V purposes. Paragraph (2): All NSR permit terms, including terms contained in minor NSR permits, constitute applicable requirements that must be incorporated into Title V permits. Paragraph (4): CAA section 112(r)(1) (the General Duty Clause) is expressly excluded from the definition of “applicable requirement,” while section 112(r)(7) Risk Management Program requirements remain included. EPA also amended 40 C.F.R. §§ 70.8 and 70.12 to clarify that alleged defects in requirements established outside the Title V process generally do not provide a basis for EPA objection to a Title V permit or for a Title V citizen petition. General Duty Clause Exclusion The rule also codifies EPA’s longstanding position that the General Duty Clause in CAA section 112(r)(1) is not an “applicable requirement” for Title V purposes. EPA points to several considerations supporting that conclusion, including the distinction between the General Duty Clause and Title V permit terms, the provision’s origins in the Occupational Safety and Health Act’s general duty clause, and the different enforcement structures applicable to the General Duty Clause and Title V permit requirements. Importantly, excluding section 112(r)(1) from the definition of “applicable requirement” does not eliminate EPA’s authority to enforce the General Duty Clause independently of the Title V program. The final rule instead clarifies that the General Duty Clause need not—and should not—be incorporated into Title V permits as an applicable requirement. Practical Implications for Regulated Sources Greater Finality for NSR Permits  For projects requiring PSD, nonattainment NSR, or minor NSR permits, the permitting process becomes the primary forum for resolving disputes regarding applicability determinations, emissions calculations, control technology requirements, offsets, and permit conditions. Once an NSR permit is issued through a qualifying public process, regulated sources should face substantially reduced risk that those same issues will be challenged years later through Title V permit proceedings. Reduced Risk of Collateral Permit Challenges Stakeholders have sometimes sought to use Title V permit issuance, renewal, revision, or citizen-petition proceedings to challenge underlying NSR determinations. The final rule makes clear that Title V is not the appropriate vehicle for challenging whether an applicable requirement was correctly established in the first instance. This should reduce the risk of permit delays and uncertainty associated with collateral challenges to previously issued NSR permits. The rule does not, however, eliminate all Title V challenges relating to an NSR permit. Challenges concerning the Title V permit itself—including whether it appropriately incorporates applicable requirements or contains adequate compliance provisions—remain possible. Increased Importance of the Initial NSR Proceeding Because Title V generally will not provide a second opportunity to challenge the substantive validity of an NSR determination, the administrative record developed during the NSR process becomes increasingly important. Permit applicants should ensure that applicability analyses, emissions calculations, control technology evaluations, modeling demonstrations, and supporting technical documentation are thoroughly developed during the original permitting proceeding. For significant projects, applicants may therefore have an additional incentive to identify and resolve potential permitting issues before the NSR permit is issued rather than assuming that unresolved issues can be addressed during a subsequent Title V proceeding. Potential Incentive for Broader Public Participation EPA also notes that permitting authorities may choose to provide public notice and an opportunity for comment for a broader range of NSR permits because permits issued through a qualifying public process receive the benefit of the finality framework established by the rule. Some permitting authorities may conclude that greater public participation at the NSR stage is preferable to uncertainty during subsequent Title V proceedings. Conclusion The final rule is principally a permitting-certainty measure. For sources that obtain NSR permits through a public process, EPA has substantially limited the ability of third parties to revisit underlying NSR determinations through the Title V program. As a result, regulated entities should benefit from greater finality regarding key permitting decisions, reduced risk of collateral permit challenges, and increased certainty when planning and implementing capital projects.

Insights

Energy Law: Month in Review - September 2026

Welcome to Dorsey’s Energy Law: Month in Review. We provide this update to our clients to identify significant developments in the previous month. Please reach out to any of the authors, listed above, to discuss these issues. Regulatory Developments Massachusetts Ratchets Up State and Local Regulation of AI Data Centers In early September, Governor Maura Healey of Massachusetts signed an executive order requiring that artificial intelligence data centers secure the approval of local communities as a precondition to proceeding with a given project. According to the terms of the order, data center developers will need to secure a “community benefits agreement” as a precondition to receiving permits from numerous state agencies, including the Department of Environmental Protection, the Energy Facilities Siting Board, and the Massachusetts Environmental Policy Act Office. Beyond requiring community benefits agreements, the order also mandates that developers mitigate utility costs to consumers, prohibits the use of nondisclosure agreements, and requires various state agencies to develop measures to limit data center impacts on the environment. North Carolina Regulators Decline Approval of Duke Energy Gas Turbine On September 18, 2026, North Carolina Utilities Commission (NCUC) denied Duke Energy’s application for a certificate of public convenience and necessity required to construct a gas-fueled combustion turbine at its Smith Energy Complex in North Carolina. The NCUC objected strongly to the $584 million price tag and noted that Duke appeared to be constructing the facility “based on anticipated data center customer additions.” The NCUC rejected that anticipated growth as “insufficiently reliable for the Commission to act at this point.” In rejecting Duke’s application, the NCUC also noted that Duke had signed the White House Ratepayer Protection Pledge, in which it represented that it would not shift data center costs to consumers. The NCUC observed that the record did not demonstrate how Duke “intends to adhere to its commitments under the Ratepayer Protection Pledge with regard to the Proposed Facility.” Notably, commission staff had actually supported the construction of the turbine, citing concerns about Duke’s reserve margins. The NCUC noted that it “understands the Public Staff’s expressed concerns,” but those concerns were outweighed by the NCUC’s reservations, including questions of demand. Department of Energy Approves Funds for Grid Improvement The U.S. Department of Energy (DOE) recently announced that it would fund 31 grid-improvement projects in 26 states. The funding initiative is part of the DOE’s “SPARK” initiative. The funding will include $1.9 billion in federal funding from DOE and $3.35 billion in recipient cost-sharing funding. The funds will go to projects designed to improve grid reliability and lower electricity costs. Recipients plan to reconductor over 1,500 miles of transmission lines and will deploy grid-enhancing technologies across approximately 21,000 miles. DOE stated that this initiative will make available over 23 additional gigawatts of electricity. Texas Moderates Rules Governing Data Center Interconnection The Texas Public Utility Commission adopted new regulations governing large-load interconnections. The rules impose a flat study fee of $100,000 for all proposed interconnections, which departs from the initial proposal to impose study fees using a tiered system based on project size. Additionally, the final rule eliminates the PUC’s previous proposal to impose a non-refundable interconnection fee of $50,000 per MW of contracted peak demand. The final rule also moderates the initially proposed regulations governing Electric Reliability Council of Texas (ERCOT) notifications for large-load customers’ non-utilized capacity. The proposed rules would have required notifying ERCOT within 30 days of missing a scheduled energization milestone by six months. The final rules, however, do not require informing ERCOT unless a scheduled energization milestone is missed by 24 months. FERC Denies TransAlta 202(c) Cost-Recovery Plan The Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (FERC) recently rejected TransAlta’s plan to recover $19.9 million in expenses stemming from a DOE order in which DOE prohibited TransAlta from retiring its coal-powered Centralia power plant. TransAlta had previously intended to retire the facility at the end of 2025. TransAlta’s cost recovery plan proposed spending an additional $23 million on repairs to continue operating the unit. FERC’s main objection had to do with geographic scope. TransAlta’s recovery plan called for recovering costs from California Independent System Operator (CAISO) and the Southwest Power Pool (SPP), but the DOE’s order requiring operation of the plant was designed to ensure reliability in the Northwest assessment area (Montana, Oregon, Washington, and parts of northern California and northern Idaho). Accordingly, FERC was unwilling to allow cost recovery from CAISO and SPP when the order that precipitated the additional costs only related to the Northwest assessment area. FERC informed TransAlta that it would only approve cost recovery from load-serving entities in the Northwest assessment area. FERC’s decision comes amid a rush of DOE emergency orders requiring the continued operation of coal-fired generating units. Litigation Appeals Court Upholds Washington Hydropower Plant With Caveats In a September 21, 2026, opinion, the Washington Court of Appeals largely upheld a Clean Water Act water quality certification by the Washington Department of Ecology for the Goldendale Energy Storage Project, a proposed pumped-water storage hydropower system adjacent to, but off-stream from, the Columbia River. A nonprofit (Columbia Riverkeeper) and the Confederated Tribes and Bands of the Yakama Nation appealed the certification, contending that it failed to impose necessary conditions and monitoring requirements to protect the water quality of the Columbia River. Most saliently, the plaintiffs argued that the project had the potential to leak 100 acre-feet of water per year into tributaries of the Columbia River. The Court of Appeals broadly rejected plaintiffs’ challenge to the state’s conclusion that “the project was designed not to leak.” That said, the Court of Appeals did reverse on one narrow issue. Specifically, the court determined that the state’s conclusion that “leakage from the project’s tunnels would be monitored and reported” was not supported by the evidence because the certification “does not explicitly require monitoring and reporting to determine whether there is any leakage.” Accordingly, the court remanded the matter to the state to impose monitoring and reporting requirements but otherwise affirmed the certification. Legislative Developments California Legislates Restrictions on Data Center Energy Use and Grid Costs On September 21, 2026, California Governor Gavin Newsom signed seven bills broadly regulating data centers in the state. SB 1168 directed the California Public Utilities Commission to assess the energy used by data centers. It also requires the PUC to pass costs of transmission and distribution upgrades and load increases on to data centers, rather than customers. SB 886 and SB 887 compel data centers to pay for infrastructure upgrade and generation costs, and wildfire mitigation costs, in addition to imposing environmental review. The statutes additionally increase local oversight of data centers. AB 1577 imposes a monthly reporting requirement that requires data centers to supply energy consumption and efficiency data to the California Energy Commission. AB 2383 contains incentives for data centers to use onsite clean energy generation. Finally, AB 2469 and AB 2619 require data center developments to assess water supply and develop a water scarcity plan. The statutes also mandate statewide water reporting as a precondition to obtaining and renewing business licenses.