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Client Alert

New SEC Cybersecurity Rules Require Mandatory Disclosure

September 8, 2023

by Cam C. Hoang

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On July 26, 2023, the Securities and Exchange Commission adopted new rules imposing disclosure requirements regarding cybersecurity risk management, strategy, governance and incidents. The new rules, which became effective September 5, 2023, apply to nearly all domestic SEC reporting issuers and those foreign private issuers that report on Form 20-F.  Foreign private issuers that report on Form 40-F are subject only to the limited cybersecurity incident disclosure requirements.

For all affected issuers, the new disclosures regarding cybersecurity risk management, strategy and governance will be required in the annual report for fiscal years ending on or after December 15, 2023.  For issuers other than smaller reporting companies, the disclosures required in connection with a cybersecurity incident will be required after December 18, 2023.  Smaller reporting issuers will have an additional 180 days before they are required to comply with the cybersecurity incident reporting requirements, so after June 15, 2024.  Issuers must tag the new disclosures in Inline XBRL, including by block text tagging narrative disclosures and detail tagging quantitative amounts, beginning one year after the initial compliance date for the issuer for the related disclosure requirement.

The new rules include three important definitions that are critical to the new disclosures:

  • Cybersecurity incident means an unauthorized occurrence, or a series of related unauthorized occurrences, on or conducted through a company’s information systems that jeopardizes the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of a company’s information systems or any information residing therein. The Commission advises that “cybersecurity incidents” are to be construed broadly, as cyberattacks sometimes compound over time, rather than present as a discrete event. Furthermore, an accidental occurrence may be a cybersecurity incident under the definition, even if there is no confirmed malicious activity.
  • Cybersecurity threat means any potential unauthorized occurrence on or conducted through a company’s information systems that may result in adverse effects on the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of a company’s information systems or any information residing therein.
  • Information systems means electronic information resources, owned or used by the company, including physical or virtual infrastructure controlled by such information resources, or components thereof, organized for the collection, processing, maintenance, use, sharing, dissemination, or disposition of the company’s information to maintain or support the company’s operations. The definition covers resources owned by third parties.

The new rules are driven by the Commission’s premise that investors need more timely and consistent cybersecurity disclosure to make informed investment decisions.  The Commission also cites recent significant developments in cyber-regulation.  The President signed into law the Cyber Incident Reporting for Critical Infrastructure Act of 2022 (“CIRCIA”) on March 15, 2022.  The centerpiece of CIRCIA is the reporting obligation placed on companies in defined critical infrastructure sectors. Once rules are adopted by the Cybersecurity & Infrastructure Security Agency (“CISA”), these companies will be required to report covered cyber incidents to CISA within 72 hours of discovery, and report ransom payments within 24 hours. Importantly, reports made to CISA pursuant to CIRCIA will remain confidential; while the information contained therein may be shared across Federal agencies for cybersecurity, investigatory, and law enforcement purposes, the information may not be disclosed publicly, except in anonymized form.  We note, however, that since the relevant triggers for reporting under the CIRCIA rules will likely substantially overlap the triggers under the SEC rules, the circumstances in which cybersecurity events remain confidential are likely to be limited.

Cybersecurity Risk Management Disclosures

For domestic filers, the disclosure requirements regarding cybersecurity risk management and governance are contained in Item 106(b) and (c) of Regulation S-K.  For 20-F filers, the disclosure requirements are contained in Item 16K of Form 20-F.  For Canadian issuers filing on Form 40-F under the U.S.-Canada Multijurisdictional Disclosure System (“MJDS”), the new rules do not impose any new risk management or governance disclosure requirements.

The new disclosures required in an issuer’s annual report cover the processes that issuers have in place to address cybersecurity risks, as well as the Board’s oversight role.  Specifically the new rules require an issuer to describe:

  1. the registrant’s processes, if any, for assessing, identifying, and managing material risks from cybersecurity threats in sufficient detail for a reasonable investor to understand those processes.

    In preparing that disclosure, the rules point to a non-exclusive list of topics to consider: (i) Whether and how any such processes have been integrated into the registrant’s overall risk management system or processes; (ii) Whether the registrant engages assessors, consultants, auditors, or other third parties in connection with any such processes; and (iii) Whether the registrant has processes to oversee and identify such risks from cybersecurity threats associated with its use of any third-party service provider.

  2. whether any risks from cybersecurity threats, including as a result of any previous cybersecurity incidents, have materially affected or are reasonably likely to materially affect the registrant, including its business strategy, results of operations, or financial condition and if so, how. In the final rules, the Commission removed the proposed list of risk types (i.e., “intellectual property theft; fraud; extortion; harm to employees or customers; violation of privacy laws and other litigation and legal risk; and reputational risk”), to foreclose any perception that the rule prescribes cybersecurity policy, but we include the list here in case it may help issuers as they develop the required disclosure.
  3. the board of directors’ oversight of risks from cybersecurity threats. If applicable, identify any board committee or subcommittee responsible for the oversight of risks from cybersecurity threats and describe the processes by which the board or such committee is informed about such risks.
  4. management’s role in assessing and managing the issuer’s material risks from cybersecurity threats. In providing such disclosure, the rules point to a non-exclusive list of topics to consider: (i) whether and which management positions or committees are responsible for assessing and managing such risks, and the relevant expertise of such persons or members in such detail as necessary to fully describe the nature of the expertise; (ii) the processes by which such persons or committees are informed about and monitor the prevention, detection, mitigation, and remediation of cybersecurity incidents; and (iii) whether such persons or committees report information about such risks to the board of directors or a committee or subcommittee of the board of directors.

In response to commenters’ concerns about the proposed disclosure’s security implications and prescriptiveness, in the final rule, the Commission streamlined the disclosure elements related to risk management, strategy, and governance, and it did not adopt the requirement to disclose board cybersecurity expertise. It also clarified that certain updated incident disclosure should be filed on an amended Form 8-K instead of Forms 10-Q and 10-K for domestic issuers, and on Form 6-K instead of Form 20-F for foreign private issuers.

Cybersecurity Incident Disclosures

Domestic issuers that experience a cybersecurity incident that the issuer determines to be material, must disclose information regarding the incident on Form 8-K within four business days of determining that the incident was material.  Under the rules, filings may be delayed only in very limited circumstances, including, most notably, upon a determination by the United States Attorney General that immediate disclosure would pose a substantial risk to national security or public safety.

In response to commenters’ concerns with the scope and timing of the disclosure, in the final rule, the Commission narrowed the scope of disclosure to focus primarily on the impacts rather than the details of the incident, added a limited delay for disclosures, and omitted the aggregation of immaterial incidents for materiality analyses.

The requirements, set forth in Item 1.05 of Form 8-K, require the issuer to describe the material aspects of the nature, scope, and timing of the incident, and the material impact or reasonably likely material impact on the issuer, including its financial condition and results of operations.

When Form 8-K Amendments Are Required

Furthermore, the issuer must amend a prior Form 8-K to disclose any information that was not determined or was unavailable at the time of the initial filing. The final rules do not separately create or otherwise affect an issuer’s duty to update its prior statements. However, an issuer may have a duty to correct prior disclosure that they determine was untrue (or omitted a material fact necessary to make the disclosure not misleading) at the time it was made.  The Commission advises issuers to consider whether they need to revisit or refresh previous disclosure, including during the process of investigating a cybersecurity incident.

Impact of Late Form 8-K Filing on Form S-3 Eligibility

Issuers will be glad to learn that untimely filing of an Item 1.05 Form 8-K will not result in the loss of Form S-3 eligibility, and that the disclosure is eligible for a limited safe harbor from liability under Section 10(b) or Rule 10b-5 under the Exchange Act.

Determining Materiality of a Cyberincident

“Material” as used in the new rules, is consistent with the definition of “materiality” generally applied under US securities laws, namely information that a reasonable investor would consider important in making an investment decision, and information that would alter the total mix of information made available.

The issuer should consider qualitative factors alongside quantitative factors in assessing the material impact of an incident.  By way of illustration, harm to an issuer’s reputation, customer or vendor relationships, or competitiveness may be examples of a material impact on the issuer. Similarly, the possibility of litigation or regulatory investigations or actions, including regulatory actions by state and Federal Governmental authorities and non-U.S. authorities, may constitute a reasonably likely material impact on the issuer.  A decision to share information with other companies or government actors does not in itself necessarily constitute a determination of materiality.

Determining Materiality “Without Unreasonable Delay”

Recognizing that a materiality determination necessitates an informed and deliberative process, Instruction 1 to Item 1.05 states that issuers must make their materiality determination “without unreasonable delay.”  Among the examples provided to illustrate unreasonable delay, the adopting release provides that an issuer being unable to determine the full extent of an incident because of the nature of the incident or the issuer’s systems, or otherwise the need for continued investigation regarding the incident, should not delay the issuer from determining materiality.

Cybersecurity Incidents on Third-Party Systems

The Commission noted that it is not exempting issuers from providing disclosures regarding cybersecurity incidents on third-party systems they use, nor are they providing a safe harbor for information disclosed about third-party systems, because whether an incident is material is not contingent on where the relevant electronic systems reside or who owns them, especially as issuers increasingly rely on third-party cloud services.  Issuers should disclose based on the information available to them. The final rules generally do not require that issuers conduct additional inquiries outside of their regular channels of communication with third-party service providers pursuant to those contracts and in accordance with issuers’ disclosure controls and procedures.

Delaying Cybersecurity Incident Disclosure

An issuer may delay a Form 8-K filing if the Attorney General determines that the disclosure poses a substantial risk to national security or public safety and notifies the Commission of such determination in writing.  In addition, the Commission envisions that other government agencies with conflicting disclosure regimes may work with the Attorney General in seeking delayed disclosure.  Initially, disclosure may be delayed for a time period specified by the Attorney General, up to 30 days following the date when the disclosure was otherwise required to be provided. The delay may be extended for an additional period of up to 30 days, and in extraordinary circumstances, disclosure may be delayed for a final additional period of up to 60 days.  If the Attorney General indicates that further delay is necessary, the Commission may grant such relief through an exemptive order.

Disclosures for Foreign Private Issuers

Foreign private issuers that file on Form 20-F must adhere to requirements parallel to those of domestic issuers and disclose information regarding their cybersecurity risk management, strategy and governance in Form 20-F.  Both 20-F filers and 40-F filers must promptly furnish on Form 6-K information regarding a material cybersecurity incident that they disclose or otherwise publicize in a foreign jurisdiction, to any stock exchange, or to security holders. For Canadian issuers filing on Form 40-F under MJDS, the new rules do not impose any new risk management or governance disclosure requirements, given that the MJDS generally permits eligible Canadian FPIs to use Canadian disclosure standards and documents to satisfy the Commission’s registration and disclosure requirements.  Such filers are already subject to the Canadian Securities Administrators’ 2017 guidance on the disclosure of cybersecurity risks and incidents.

Key Takeaways

Reevaluate and update policies and processes

We anticipate that most, if not all, issuers have some level of formal processes in place to identify and respond to cybersecurity incidents.  However, given that the new rules will require issuers to publicly disclose those processes, we anticipate that issuers will want to ensure their disclosed processes are within the range of best practices for their industry and that appropriate disclosure controls and procedures have been established.  Further, issuers will want to ensure that the relevant members of senior management, IT and legal within their organization are informed and involved on a timely basis to ensure that critical determinations can be made, materiality can be assessed and disclosures can be prepared and reviewed in the required time periods.  In our experience, it is important to articulate and memorialize the specific details of management’s processes in responding to a cybersecurity incident and, even more importantly, to ensure that policies and procedures are in fact implemented in a manner that can be audited.

A determination of materiality can be difficult in the best of circumstances.  In the context of a cybersecurity incident, where all the relevant facts are not necessarily available to the issuer, it will likely often be even more challenging.  Further, since the relevant inquiry is both forward-looking (i.e., a future loss that is reasonably foreseeable) and based on qualitative and quantitative factors (i.e., a reputational loss vs. a financial loss), an issuer may find it challenging to meet the requirements of the new rules without carefully defined roles and processes in place prior to the event.  To facilitate compliance when a cybersecurity event occurs, issuers are well-served by undergoing exercises in which the likely types of events are identified, an assessment is made as to the appropriate response to those events, and how the company will exercise its judgment regarding the process and criteria for deterring materiality.

Cyberincident assessment and response may constitute material nonpublic information that triggers restrictions on trading by directors, officers and other employees.  Insider trading policies and processes should be reviewed and tested to ensure that the issuer is prepared to identify those individuals whose trading should be restricted and to communicate those restrictions without unreasonable delay, and to plan and provide for communication regarding such events well in advance.

Equip directors and management to fulfill their duties on cybersecurity risk management

Boards and their committees should understand their role in overseeing risks from cybersecurity threats and be involved in the establishment of systems to manage these risks. There should be processes by which the board is informed about and monitors such risks on a regular basis.  Agenda items may include reports from management on incident response plans and cybersecurity incidents and remediation.  Likewise, management should understand their role in assessing and managing the issuer’s material risks from cybersecurity threats. Tabletop exercises are essential to help boards and management prepare for future incidents. 

Identify and plan for compliance with multiple agencies’ disclosure regimes

Anticipating potential conflicts with regulations established under CIRCIA and from CISA, the Commission is participating in interagency working groups on cybersecurity regulatory implementation for potential modifications to Item 1.05.

For issuers subject to the Federal Communications Commission’s conflicting notification rules in the event of breaches, paragraph (d) to Item 1.05 provides that such issuers may delay making a Form 8-K disclosure up to the seven business day period following notification to the U.S. Secret Service and FBI specified in the FCC rule, with written notification to the Commission.

Issuers should stay mindful of other relevant disclosure regimes, including the Department of Health and Human Service and its rule on Notification in the Case of Breach of Unsecured Protected Health Information, as well as regulations and programs of the Department of Defense, Department of Energy, Department of Homeland Security, the Federal banking regulatory agencies, and state insurance laws.

Provide for the ability to gather information about third party information systems

Since the definition of information systems includes all systems used by the issuer, required disclosures extend to those systems owned by third parties.  While the rules do not impose on issuers an obligation to perform any special inquiry of third party service providers, issuers should ensure that the agreements governing its third party relationships provide it with the ability to obtain the information necessary to make prompt assessment and disclosure of cybersecurity incidents.

Consider U.S. compliant disclosure for foreign private issuers

While 20-F filers must disclose information on cybersecurity risk management that essentially the same as domestic issuers, 40-F filers generally need only disclose a cybersecurity incident if that incident is disclosed or would be required to be disclosed in Canada.  However, we anticipate that foreign issuers that are cross-listed in the United States or frequently access the US capital markets are likely to feel some pressure to adopt disclosures similar to those made by their peers in the United States.  Further, since the question of whether a particular cybersecurity incident is “material” isn’t necessarily dependent on whether disclosure of the incident is mandated by a form requirement, we anticipate that issues regarding the materiality of a cybersecurity incident are likely to receive additional scrutiny in the context of the new rules in connection with cross-border registered offerings.  Accordingly, we believe cross-listed foreign private issuers would be well-served to evaluate their own internal processes in order to anticipate potential changes in market practices.

Firm Highlights

Insights

SEC Proposes Expansion of Investment Adviser Performance-Based Compensation Rule

On September 30, 2026, the Securities and Exchange Commission (the “SEC”) proposed amendments to Rule 205-3 under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940, as amended (the “Advisers Act”), which provides an exemption from the general prohibition under Section 205(a)(1) of the Advisers Act on registered investment advisers receiving performance-based compensation (the “Proposal”) so long as performance-based compensation is limited to “qualified clients”.1 Most notably for private fund sponsors, the Proposal would expand the definition of “qualified client” to include any investors that satisfy the “accredited investor” definition under Regulation D. The Proposal may also have implications for private fund managers that rely on exemptions from investment adviser registration under state law because certain state-level investment adviser registration exemptions incorporate or otherwise reference the federal qualified client definition. Expansion of the Qualified Client Definition Under the current Rule 205-3, an investor generally may qualify as a qualified client if, among other alternatives, the investor has at least $1.4 million under management with the adviser or has a net worth exceeding $2.7 million. These thresholds are higher than the financial thresholds applicable to many accredited investors under Regulation D. As a result, an investor may currently qualify as an accredited investor for purposes of investing in a private offering without qualifying as a qualified client for purposes of paying performance-based compensation. The Proposal would expand the qualified client definition to include any natural person or legal entity investor that satisfies the accredited investor definition under Regulation D. The Proposal would also remove the assets under management and net worth thresholds under the current Rule 205-3 qualified client test. For private funds relying on Section 3(c)(1) of the Investment Company Act of 1940, this change could reduce the need to apply a separate qualified client standard to investors that already qualify as accredited investors. Dorsey Observations and Next Steps If adopted as proposed, the expanded qualified client definition could be particularly significant for private fund managers. Most private fund offerings are already limited to accredited investors under Regulation D. However, the Proposal could expand the pool of prospective investors available to emerging private fund managers while reducing the regulatory burden associated with complying with Rule 205-3. The Proposal could also benefit advisers operating below the SEC registration threshold that rely on a state private fund adviser exemption. A number of states have adopted exemptions modeled on the North American Securities Administrators Association (“NASAA”) private fund adviser exemption, which may condition relief for advisers to certain funds relying on Section 3(c)(1) on each beneficial owner satisfying the federal qualified client definition. However, state requirements vary, and any effect of the Proposal would depend on the text of the applicable state exemption and how it incorporates Rule 205-3. Many emerging private fund managers may have a larger network of accredited investor relationships than qualified client relationships during the early stages of their investment advisory business. Currently, under Rule 205-3, private fund managers may receive performance-based compensation from investors who do not satisfy the qualified client definition if those investors were admitted to their private funds prior to registration with the SEC. Following registration with the SEC, however, managers may continue to permit investors that are not qualified clients to invest in future private funds but may not receive performance-based compensation from those investors with respect to such investments. In addition, because the net worth and assets under management thresholds for qualified client status are adjusted for inflation every five years, the pool of qualified client investors may diminish over time as previously eligible investors no longer satisfy the applicable thresholds. The Proposal could provide the dual benefit of greater flexibility for private fund managers to establish and maintain relationships with accredited investors as their businesses scale and they become registered with the SEC, and greater flexibility for certain accredited investors to participate in investment strategies that historically have been restricted to much larger institutional investors. Unless and until the Proposal is adopted, investment advisers should continue to comply with the existing qualified client requirements. If the Proposal is adopted, private fund sponsors should consider whether corresponding changes are appropriate for their subscription documents, investor questionnaires, and other offering materials. Advisers that are state-registered or rely on a state-level exemption should also consult the laws and regulations of each relevant jurisdiction before changing investor eligibility standards or performance-based compensation practices, because adoption of the federal amendments may not automatically modify state requirements. Comments on the Proposal will be due 60 days after publication in the Federal Register. 1 Investment Adviser Performance-Based Compensation Modernization, Investment Advisers Act Release No. IA-7022 (Sept. 30, 2026), available at https://www.sec.gov/rules-regulations/2026/09/s7-2026-28#33-11443proposed.

Insights

Energy Law: Month in Review - September 2026

Welcome to Dorsey’s Energy Law: Month in Review. We provide this update to our clients to identify significant developments in the previous month. Please reach out to any of the authors, listed above, to discuss these issues. Regulatory Developments Massachusetts Ratchets Up State and Local Regulation of AI Data Centers In early September, Governor Maura Healey of Massachusetts signed an executive order requiring that artificial intelligence data centers secure the approval of local communities as a precondition to proceeding with a given project. According to the terms of the order, data center developers will need to secure a “community benefits agreement” as a precondition to receiving permits from numerous state agencies, including the Department of Environmental Protection, the Energy Facilities Siting Board, and the Massachusetts Environmental Policy Act Office. Beyond requiring community benefits agreements, the order also mandates that developers mitigate utility costs to consumers, prohibits the use of nondisclosure agreements, and requires various state agencies to develop measures to limit data center impacts on the environment. North Carolina Regulators Decline Approval of Duke Energy Gas Turbine On September 18, 2026, North Carolina Utilities Commission (NCUC) denied Duke Energy’s application for a certificate of public convenience and necessity required to construct a gas-fueled combustion turbine at its Smith Energy Complex in North Carolina. The NCUC objected strongly to the $584 million price tag and noted that Duke appeared to be constructing the facility “based on anticipated data center customer additions.” The NCUC rejected that anticipated growth as “insufficiently reliable for the Commission to act at this point.” In rejecting Duke’s application, the NCUC also noted that Duke had signed the White House Ratepayer Protection Pledge, in which it represented that it would not shift data center costs to consumers. The NCUC observed that the record did not demonstrate how Duke “intends to adhere to its commitments under the Ratepayer Protection Pledge with regard to the Proposed Facility.” Notably, commission staff had actually supported the construction of the turbine, citing concerns about Duke’s reserve margins. The NCUC noted that it “understands the Public Staff’s expressed concerns,” but those concerns were outweighed by the NCUC’s reservations, including questions of demand. Department of Energy Approves Funds for Grid Improvement The U.S. Department of Energy (DOE) recently announced that it would fund 31 grid-improvement projects in 26 states. The funding initiative is part of the DOE’s “SPARK” initiative. The funding will include $1.9 billion in federal funding from DOE and $3.35 billion in recipient cost-sharing funding. The funds will go to projects designed to improve grid reliability and lower electricity costs. Recipients plan to reconductor over 1,500 miles of transmission lines and will deploy grid-enhancing technologies across approximately 21,000 miles. DOE stated that this initiative will make available over 23 additional gigawatts of electricity. Texas Moderates Rules Governing Data Center Interconnection The Texas Public Utility Commission adopted new regulations governing large-load interconnections. The rules impose a flat study fee of $100,000 for all proposed interconnections, which departs from the initial proposal to impose study fees using a tiered system based on project size. Additionally, the final rule eliminates the PUC’s previous proposal to impose a non-refundable interconnection fee of $50,000 per MW of contracted peak demand. The final rule also moderates the initially proposed regulations governing Electric Reliability Council of Texas (ERCOT) notifications for large-load customers’ non-utilized capacity. The proposed rules would have required notifying ERCOT within 30 days of missing a scheduled energization milestone by six months. The final rules, however, do not require informing ERCOT unless a scheduled energization milestone is missed by 24 months. FERC Denies TransAlta 202(c) Cost-Recovery Plan The Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (FERC) recently rejected TransAlta’s plan to recover $19.9 million in expenses stemming from a DOE order in which DOE prohibited TransAlta from retiring its coal-powered Centralia power plant. TransAlta had previously intended to retire the facility at the end of 2025. TransAlta’s cost recovery plan proposed spending an additional $23 million on repairs to continue operating the unit. FERC’s main objection had to do with geographic scope. TransAlta’s recovery plan called for recovering costs from California Independent System Operator (CAISO) and the Southwest Power Pool (SPP), but the DOE’s order requiring operation of the plant was designed to ensure reliability in the Northwest assessment area (Montana, Oregon, Washington, and parts of northern California and northern Idaho). Accordingly, FERC was unwilling to allow cost recovery from CAISO and SPP when the order that precipitated the additional costs only related to the Northwest assessment area. FERC informed TransAlta that it would only approve cost recovery from load-serving entities in the Northwest assessment area. FERC’s decision comes amid a rush of DOE emergency orders requiring the continued operation of coal-fired generating units. Litigation Appeals Court Upholds Washington Hydropower Plant With Caveats In a September 21, 2026, opinion, the Washington Court of Appeals largely upheld a Clean Water Act water quality certification by the Washington Department of Ecology for the Goldendale Energy Storage Project, a proposed pumped-water storage hydropower system adjacent to, but off-stream from, the Columbia River. A nonprofit (Columbia Riverkeeper) and the Confederated Tribes and Bands of the Yakama Nation appealed the certification, contending that it failed to impose necessary conditions and monitoring requirements to protect the water quality of the Columbia River. Most saliently, the plaintiffs argued that the project had the potential to leak 100 acre-feet of water per year into tributaries of the Columbia River. The Court of Appeals broadly rejected plaintiffs’ challenge to the state’s conclusion that “the project was designed not to leak.” That said, the Court of Appeals did reverse on one narrow issue. Specifically, the court determined that the state’s conclusion that “leakage from the project’s tunnels would be monitored and reported” was not supported by the evidence because the certification “does not explicitly require monitoring and reporting to determine whether there is any leakage.” Accordingly, the court remanded the matter to the state to impose monitoring and reporting requirements but otherwise affirmed the certification. Legislative Developments California Legislates Restrictions on Data Center Energy Use and Grid Costs On September 21, 2026, California Governor Gavin Newsom signed seven bills broadly regulating data centers in the state. SB 1168 directed the California Public Utilities Commission to assess the energy used by data centers. It also requires the PUC to pass costs of transmission and distribution upgrades and load increases on to data centers, rather than customers. SB 886 and SB 887 compel data centers to pay for infrastructure upgrade and generation costs, and wildfire mitigation costs, in addition to imposing environmental review. The statutes additionally increase local oversight of data centers. AB 1577 imposes a monthly reporting requirement that requires data centers to supply energy consumption and efficiency data to the California Energy Commission. AB 2383 contains incentives for data centers to use onsite clean energy generation. Finally, AB 2469 and AB 2619 require data center developments to assess water supply and develop a water scarcity plan. The statutes also mandate statewide water reporting as a precondition to obtaining and renewing business licenses.

Insights

The Supreme Court Update - October 8, 2026

On September 29, 2026, the Supreme Court granted certiorari in one case: Department of Homeland Security v. D.V.D., No. 26-426: This case concerns the Trump Administration’s “third-country removal” procedures, where immigrants are deported to countries not listed in the removal orders. In granting certiorari, the Court granted the Government’s application to stay a lower court decision halting the practice, which will allow third-country removals to continue pending resolution of the case. The issues presented are: (1) Whether the district court had jurisdiction over respondents’ claims; (2) whether the district court had authority to enter class-wide declaratory relief and APA vacatur under 8 U.S.C. § 1252(f)(1); (3) whether the Government’s guidance on third-country removals is unlawful under 8 U.S.C. § 1231(b), the due process clause, or FARRA/CAT and its implementing regulations; and (4) such other questions that the Government determines are appropriate for the proper disposition of the case. On October 1, 2026, the Court granted certiorari in three additional cases: Rhoney v. Barbosa da Cunha, No. 26-104: Immigration officials detained Ricardo Aparecido Barbosa da Cunha—a Brazilian citizen who had lived in the United States for approximately twenty years after entering without inspection—and denied him a bond hearing under 8 U.S.C. § 1225(b)(2)(A). The Second Circuit held that his detention was instead governed by § 1226(a), which permits release on bond, because § 1225(b)(2)(A)’s mandatory-detention requirement applies only to noncitizens apprehended while entering the country or shortly thereafter. The question presented is: Whether 8 U.S.C. § 1225(b)(2)(A) mandates the detention pending removal proceedings of aliens who, like Barbosa da Cunha, are present in the United States without having been admitted. Missionaries of St. John the Baptist, Inc. v. Frederic, No. 25-113: A Catholic religious organization sought to build a shrine to the Virgin Mary on land the organization owned adjacent to its church in Park Hills, Kentucky. Local zoning restrictions prohibited the proposed construction. The question presented is: Whether a land-use regulation that prohibits a religious institution from building a religious structure on its own property constitutes a “substantial burden” on religious exercise under the Substantial Burden Provision of the Religious Land Use and Institutionalized Persons Act, 42 U.S.C. § 2000cc(a). Marschner v. Marschner, No. 25-1349: Under the Uniformed Services Former Spouses’ Protection Act (“USFSPA”), a veteran’s longevity-based retirement pay can be divided in a divorce, but retirement pay based on disability and retirement pay that was waived to receive disability pay are indivisible. The question presented is: Does the USFSPA require state courts to refuse enforcement of indemnification provisions in a divorce settlement agreement?

Insights

EPA Limits Title V Re-Litigation of NSR Permits

Overview On September 25, 2026, the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (“EPA”) published a final rule that significantly limits the ability of third parties to use the Clean Air Act (“CAA”) Title V permitting process to revisit New Source Review (“NSR”) permitting decisions years after those decisions were made. The rule establishes that NSR permitting determinations generally must be challenged during the original permitting proceeding, thereby providing regulated sources with greater permitting certainty and finality for major capital projects. Published in the Federal Register titled Clarifying the Scope of “Applicable Requirements” Under State Operating Permit Programs and the Federal Operating Permit Program (Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2023-0401), the rule amends 40 C.F.R. Parts 70 and 71 to codify EPA’s interpretation regarding when requirements established under other CAA programs may be reviewed, modified, or implemented through the Title V operating permit program. The rule becomes effective 30 days after publication. The rule addresses two principal issues: (1) the relationship between NSR preconstruction permitting and Title V operating permits, and (2) the treatment of the General Duty Clause under CAA section 112(r)(1). Most significantly, the rule provides greater certainty for sources navigating the NSR permitting process. EPA’s amendments are intended to ensure that NSR permitting decisions made through an approved public process are generally not revisited later through Title V permit proceedings. The rule responds to a circuit split between the U.S. Courts of Appeals for the Fifth and Tenth Circuits. In Environmental Integrity Project v. EPA, 969 F.3d 529 (5th Cir. 2020), the Fifth Circuit upheld EPA’s interpretation, concluding that it was consistent with the text, structure, and purpose of Title V. In contrast, the Tenth Circuit reached the opposite conclusion in Sierra Club v. EPA, 964 F.3d 882 (10th Cir. 2020), finding that the then-existing regulatory definition of “applicable requirement” did not support EPA’s position. By amending the regulatory language on which the Tenth Circuit relied and codifying the interpretation approved by the Fifth Circuit, EPA has established a nationwide framework governing the interaction between NSR and Title V. NSR and Title V: EPA Establishes a Uniform Nationwide Framework At the core of the rule is EPA’s effort to define the respective roles of NSR and Title V. The rule codifies the approach EPA has applied since 2017: once a source obtains an NSR permit under an EPA-approved permitting program, and that permit was issued following public notice with an opportunity for comment and judicial review, the permit establishes the NSR-related “applicable requirements” of the State Implementation Plan (“SIP”) or Federal Implementation Plan (“FIP”) for Title V purposes. Under this framework, Title V is not a vehicle for re-examining underlying NSR permitting decisions. EPA does not intend to use the Title V process to revisit applicability determinations, emissions calculations, control technology determinations, permit conditions, or other issues resolved through the NSR permitting process. This principle applies regardless of the stage of the Title V proceeding; whether the NSR permit was issued pursuant to a SIP or FIP; the type of NSR issue involved; or whether the NSR permit is incorporated into Title V sequentially or concurrently. Limited Exceptions EPA recognizes several circumstances in which NSR issues may still be reviewed through the Title V program: No NSR permit was issued at all; The permit was issued without public notice and an opportunity for comment and judicial review; or The issue involves substantive overlap between Title V and NSR requirements, such as the adequacy of monitoring provisions. As a result, the rule does not insulate unpermitted projects or foreclose review of matters that independently arise under Title V. Key Regulatory Amendments The rule revises the definition of “applicable requirement” in 40 C.F.R. §§ 70.2 and 71.2. Paragraph (1): Where an NSR permit is issued with public notice and an opportunity for comment and judicial review, the permit establishes and defines the applicable SIP or FIP requirements for Title V purposes. Paragraph (2): All NSR permit terms, including terms contained in minor NSR permits, constitute applicable requirements that must be incorporated into Title V permits. Paragraph (4): CAA section 112(r)(1) (the General Duty Clause) is expressly excluded from the definition of “applicable requirement,” while section 112(r)(7) Risk Management Program requirements remain included. EPA also amended 40 C.F.R. §§ 70.8 and 70.12 to clarify that alleged defects in requirements established outside the Title V process generally do not provide a basis for EPA objection to a Title V permit or for a Title V citizen petition. General Duty Clause Exclusion The rule also codifies EPA’s longstanding position that the General Duty Clause in CAA section 112(r)(1) is not an “applicable requirement” for Title V purposes. EPA points to several considerations supporting that conclusion, including the distinction between the General Duty Clause and Title V permit terms, the provision’s origins in the Occupational Safety and Health Act’s general duty clause, and the different enforcement structures applicable to the General Duty Clause and Title V permit requirements. Importantly, excluding section 112(r)(1) from the definition of “applicable requirement” does not eliminate EPA’s authority to enforce the General Duty Clause independently of the Title V program. The final rule instead clarifies that the General Duty Clause need not—and should not—be incorporated into Title V permits as an applicable requirement. Practical Implications for Regulated Sources Greater Finality for NSR Permits  For projects requiring PSD, nonattainment NSR, or minor NSR permits, the permitting process becomes the primary forum for resolving disputes regarding applicability determinations, emissions calculations, control technology requirements, offsets, and permit conditions. Once an NSR permit is issued through a qualifying public process, regulated sources should face substantially reduced risk that those same issues will be challenged years later through Title V permit proceedings. Reduced Risk of Collateral Permit Challenges Stakeholders have sometimes sought to use Title V permit issuance, renewal, revision, or citizen-petition proceedings to challenge underlying NSR determinations. The final rule makes clear that Title V is not the appropriate vehicle for challenging whether an applicable requirement was correctly established in the first instance. This should reduce the risk of permit delays and uncertainty associated with collateral challenges to previously issued NSR permits. The rule does not, however, eliminate all Title V challenges relating to an NSR permit. Challenges concerning the Title V permit itself—including whether it appropriately incorporates applicable requirements or contains adequate compliance provisions—remain possible. Increased Importance of the Initial NSR Proceeding Because Title V generally will not provide a second opportunity to challenge the substantive validity of an NSR determination, the administrative record developed during the NSR process becomes increasingly important. Permit applicants should ensure that applicability analyses, emissions calculations, control technology evaluations, modeling demonstrations, and supporting technical documentation are thoroughly developed during the original permitting proceeding. For significant projects, applicants may therefore have an additional incentive to identify and resolve potential permitting issues before the NSR permit is issued rather than assuming that unresolved issues can be addressed during a subsequent Title V proceeding. Potential Incentive for Broader Public Participation EPA also notes that permitting authorities may choose to provide public notice and an opportunity for comment for a broader range of NSR permits because permits issued through a qualifying public process receive the benefit of the finality framework established by the rule. Some permitting authorities may conclude that greater public participation at the NSR stage is preferable to uncertainty during subsequent Title V proceedings. Conclusion The final rule is principally a permitting-certainty measure. For sources that obtain NSR permits through a public process, EPA has substantially limited the ability of third parties to revisit underlying NSR determinations through the Title V program. As a result, regulated entities should benefit from greater finality regarding key permitting decisions, reduced risk of collateral permit challenges, and increased certainty when planning and implementing capital projects.